Oneness of God
- "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD"

The Church Was Purchased With God's Blood
God Entrusted the Knowledge of Himself with the Jew
I John 5:7
The Jewish Understanding of One God, and Why We Must Have It
Understanding Isaiah 48:16
I John 5:7 and the Godhead
The Bible Distinguishes Between God and God The Father
Is God A Person?
Philippians 2:6-7
John 17:5
Jesus Christ Is Come In the Flesh
God - All In All
What Is The Significance of ‘In the Name of Jesus’ In Baptism and Prayer?
Colossians 1:15
Man Is Made in the Image and Likeness of the Man Christ Jesus
John 17:11 in the Majority Text
The Manifestation of the Holy Ghost Versus a Holy God Who Is Spirit
The Father
Psalm 45:6
Genesis 19:24
Isaiah 6:1
John 17:21
The Spirit of God Cannot Be Three-In-One
Another Perspective of Matthew 28:19
Flawed Foundation of the Trinity Doctrine
One God and God Is One

"Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood" (Acts 20:28).

It should be no surprise that the church was purchased with God's blood; the Bible tells us that only God can save. "I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour" (Isaiah 43:11).

Isaiah 59:15-16 reads, "Yea, truth faileth, and he that departeth from evil maketh himself a prey: and the LORD saw it, and it displeased him that there was no judgment. And he saw that there was no man, and wondered that there was no intercessor: therefore his arm brought salvation unto him; and his righteousness, it sustained him".

We all know that Jesus shed His blood on the cross to save us from our sins. He told Peter the following, "And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it" (Matthew 16:18).

John 4:24 declares that God is a Spirit. The Spirit of God has no blood to shed. However, Jesus Himself states in John 10:30 that He and His Father ARE ONE. Jesus is God. This is the reason why the Holy Ghost said that God purchased the church WITH HIS OWN BLOOD. Jesus is both God and Man. Rightly dividing the Word of God (II Timothy 2:15) reveals that God dwells in a human body that He Himself created.

Salvation was accomplished entirely by God. Because He is Spirit, God made Himself a body of a woman and under the law (Galatians 4:4). This body was known as the Son of God.

"What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? Much every way chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God" (Romans 3:1-2)."

God separated Abraham from his father who lived in Ur of the Chaldees to make a people for Himself. His father as well as the nations of the earth worshiped false gods having lost the knowledge of the one, true and living God. This separated people would be taught God's law and given the knowledge of the one, true God.

The Jew was given the knowledge of one God whose name was Yahweh (Jehovah) and were to be a beacon of truth to all other nations. And let us not forget, the first Christians were Jews and in order to have the truth concerning the one God, we must believe what they believed.

The apostle Paul provides a great witness to the oneness of God, and exactly what is meant by one God (an absolute, undivided, solitary Being or a God existing in three separate persons, i.e., the trinity). Paul, a former Pharisee, persecuted the Christians (Acts 8:3) because he knew there was only one God (Jehovah), and he believed the Christians were worshiping a false deity in Jesus.

But on the road to Damascus the truth was revealed to him: "And as he journeyed, he came near Damascus: and suddenly there shined round about him a light from heaven. And he fell to the earth, and heard a voice saying unto him, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest: it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks" (Acts 9:3-5).

The voice from heaven that Paul heard spoke to him in Hebrew (Acts 26:14). Hebrew was a dead language at this time and the only Jews who knew it were the Pharisees. We know that Paul was convicted that Jesus was the very same God that he worshiped; Paul knew that Jesus was Jehovah.

It is simply ludicrous to believe that that Paul thought of his God as existing in three separate and distinct persons, Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. Paul followed Deuteronomy 6:4 as do all Jews past and present, and he knew that God's name was Jehovah.

The Old Testament doesn't supply one scripture suggesting that Jehovah was three separate persons. As a matter of fact, trinitarian theologians import their belief of the trinity from the New Testament INTO the Old Testament. If there were no New Testament, the doctrine of the trinity in all probability would not have come into being.

I have spoken to reformed and orthodox Jews; they both agree that Jehovah is a single, whole, complete indivisible Being. Neither group have any concept or belief in a trinity. Any belief other than what God has given to the Jew is error and finds its origin in sources OTHER THAN the Bible.

"For there are three that bare record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one" (I John 5:7).

Since the entire Bible is inspired by God (II Timothy 3:16), no passage disannuls or conflicts with another. Deuteronomy 6:4 says: "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD". Jesus stated in Mark 12:29 that Deuteronomy 6:4 is the first of ALL commandments.

One LORD (or Jehovah, Yahweh) fits perfectly with I John 5:7 in that Father, Word, and Holy Ghost ARE ONE. The latter portion of John 1:1 says "...and the Word was God". John 1:14 states that the "Word was made flesh" and known as Jesus Christ.

John 14:16-18 tells us that Jesus is the Comforter which is another term for the Holy Ghost. (Don't confuse John 4:24 which declares that God is a Spirit which speaks of His essence with Holy Ghost which is God active in the body of baptized believers). I have just shown in scriptural detail what I John 5:7 declares - that these three are one.

Let us now define according to the Bible what is meant by Father, Word, and Holy Ghost. The word 'father' means one who sires, begets, or possesses the seed. 'Father' also means creator or inventor. God is Father in two senses: (1) He is the Father of the only begotten Son (John 3:16) and (2) He is the Father of all creation because he brought it into being (Genesis 1:1; Psalms 33:6).

Prior to begetting the Son and creating the heaven and the earth and His angelic host, God WAS NOT the Father. He became or occupied the title father IN TIME and not in eternity. 'Word' translated from the Greek 'logos' and Hebrew 'dabar' is God's thought and the expression of that thought. Psalms 33:6 makes this clear.

Unlike the title Father, the Word is eternal (in the beginning was the Word- John 1:1). Psalms 19:1 says that God's creation declares His glory and Romans 1:19-20 says that creation is evidence that God exists. God's thought (Word) made flesh made possible the full revelation of God to man. Whereas God's creation reveals Him, only the Son reveals God in His fullness.

To summarize, the Word is God in revelation. While on earth among His disciples, Jesus was the Comforter. But He couldn't be IN them until He went away (John 14: 16-18, 16:7). Jesus returned as the scriptures declare on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2).

Prior to His death, Jesus was the disciples Comforter in a physical sense. But on the day of Pentecost, He was their Comforter by His Spirit (the Holy Spirit). Like Father, the manifestation or title of Holy Ghost did not always exist. The manifestations of Father of the begotten Son and Holy Ghost were made necessary for the purpose of man's redemption.

"“For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts” (Isaiah 55:9).

God is so far beyond anything that is finite (limited, has an end) that He is incomprehensible. He is unknowable to man and there is no language anywhere that can express His perfections and being. Even angels who are thousands of years old and have far greater intellectual abilities than man cannot and will never be able to fathom God.

When believers receive their glorified bodies and unrestricted brain capacities, and live countless eons of ages for all eternity, they will no more begin to comprehend God than a newborn infant. There is one word which describes God but which the human mind can no more comprehend than God Himself – infinite. God is infinite.

Mathematics has a concept called infinity. Infinity is not large nor unbelievably enormous nor humongous. Infinity is boundless, endless, limitless. The mathematical symbol for infinity is the number eight tipped over on its side. Infinity cannot get larger or in any way increase; it is unrestricted and nothing in creation can encapsulate it.

Infinity cannot be measured because if it could, it would not be infinite but finite. There are words for unbelievably large numbers. A googol is one followed by 100 zeroes. The googol is bigger than the number of elementary particles in the known universe. But the googol is finite. It has a limit.

Scientists say that there are more stars in the universe than there are grains of sand on all of earth’s beaches. But the number of stars in the universe (seen and unseen) is yet finite. As a matter of fact, the universe is finite. The universe has a limit – an end. If I had a rocket that had a perpetual supply of fuel and I could not die (immortal), there would come a time when I would come to the end of the universe. This is to say that creation is finite.

God’s creation of time and the universe is declared in Genesis 1:1. The caveat is that God CANNOT create ANYTHING infinite. But far from being a flaw in God, it establishes the truth that there is ONE God and even He cannot create another. (Don’t try to understand what I am about to say but just accept it as truth; ANYTHING infinite IS God). If the universe or matter were eternal as the theory of evolution suggests, it would be God.

God is infinite in every way. He has infinite power, infinite wisdom and knowledge, and He is infinite in Being (His presence is limitless). Even God’s love and mercy are infinite (they cannot be exhausted). God can never be knowable to any created being no matter that that being live for all eternity.

God’s power, knowledge, and presence are inexhaustible. In an eternity of eternities, glorified humanity will no more come to an end of God in His power and perfections than it is possible for hell fire to be extinguished. This is the reason why neither man nor angel can thwart God’s plan.

Bible history has proven beyond a shadow of a doubt that not even Satan, God’s mightiest angelic creation, is capable of derailing the plan of God. So infinite is God that anything Satan does or is capable of doing only furthers the plan of God. The same goes with humanity. It doesn't matter what an individual does or a unified humanity does to fight God, it only works to bring God’s plan to fruition.

God has no plan B or a ‘ram in the bush’ if man or angel work contrary to the will of God, and doesn't need one. For the finite to pit himself (or herself) against the infinite is the ultimate in futility. Hear the words of the psalmist:

“Why do the heathen rage, and the people imagine a vain thing? The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD, and against his anointed, saying, Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us. He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the Lord shall have them in derision” (Psalms 2:1-4).

Ever since Adam sinned, man has pitted himself against the infinite God. Satan did likewise when he imagined himself to be God’s equal. Such foolishness brings laughter from God. These are all exercises in futility and could never, ever succeed. Let me end by identifying this infinite God. His name is Jesus.

"Hear, O Israel, The LORD our God is one LORD" (Deuteronomy 6:4)

The word 'hear' is translated from the Hebrew word 'shema'. Deuteronomy 6:4 is the very first verse in the Shema which is the central prayer for the orthodox Jew. It is their ultimate rule of faith. When one of the scribes asked Jesus which is the first of all commandments, He replied by quoting Deuteronomy 6:4.

After the flood, God told Noah to go out and repopulate the earth (Genesis 9:1). Man failed in that task and fell into the worship of false gods. God then chose Abraham from whom to make a people for Himself (Genesis 12:1).

This people (the children of Israel) was to go forth and bring the knowledge of the one, true God to apostate man. Romans 3:2 says that God committed His oracles to them.

The Jew was given the knowledge of one God by God Himself. It is to them we must look in order to know the truth of the oneness of God. Jews are generally divided into reformed, conservative, and orthodox.

The one belief in which all three agree concerns their one God. I once interviewed a Reformed Jewish rabbi and he held the strict belief given in Deuteronomy 6:4. Jews see Deuteronomy 6:4 as declaring a SINGLE, INDIVISIBLE, ABSOLUTE, and WHOLE God. This God is WITHOUT any distinction in being or 'persons'.

It is this absolute God that Jesus taught His disciples, and what the apostles taught after the day of Pentecost. ANY deviation or departure from the Jewish perspective on the oneness of God is error.

All beliefs, concepts, and doctrines concerning one God which is foreign to what the apostles taught and Jews today hold is wrong. It is very easy to embrace and speak of the one God of the Bible, and that is to AVOID all language (words and phrases) NOT found in the Bible.

“Come ye near unto me, hear ye this, I have not spoken in secret from the beginning, from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me” (Isaiah 48:16).

Because the Bible does not teach nor infer a triune God, no passage despite its difficulty can be understood as trinitarian in context. 2 Timothy 3:16 says that all scripture is given by inspiration of God and 2 Peter 1:21 says that holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. It is the Spirit that searches the deep things of God (1 Corinthians 2:10.) Based on these passages, we conclude beyond all doubt that the Spirit of God knows intimately the nature of God. He (the Spirit) has seen fit to declare God's Oneness in unmistakable and plain language (Isaiah 43:10, 44:8, 44:24, 45:6, 45:19; Deuteronomy 6:4; John 10:30; James 2:19.) The one Spirit of God (Ephesians 4:4) is referenced by many names including Spirit of the LORD, Spirit of God, Holy Ghost, Spirit of Jesus, Spirit of the Son, and others. This in itself is indisputable proof that the concept of the Trinity in the Bible is nonexistent. God is a Spirit (John 4:24) and thereby indivisible, numerically one, and infinite in presence (omnipresent.)

Isaiah 48:16 has traditionally been viewed through a Trinitarian mindset because the doctrine of the Trinity has in truth been Roman Catholic and Protestant Church dogma for centuries. It has been validated and sanctioned through many church councils. Any view contrary to the Trinity is considered to be heresy.

Let us now get an understanding of Isaiah 48:16 which is in alignment with what the Bible actually teaches. Yahweh (Jehovah, the LORD) is the speaker through verse 15. There does seem to be a transition of speakers when we reach verse 16. The phrases 'there am I' and 'hath sent me' are spoken prophetically by the Son. Who is the Son? He is God manifest in the flesh (1 Timothy 3:16a) Who was born of the virgin Mary (Luke 1:35.) Many times the Holy Ghost gives prophetic (future) utterances and actions of the Son in the Old Testament. One well-known example is Isaiah 61:1-2 which was read in the temple by Jesus (Luke 4:17-21.) He left no doubt that Isaiah 61:1-2 was referring to Him (Luke 4:21.)

The Bible teaches that God manifests Himself as the Father, IN the Son, and as the Holy Ghost. One God in three revelations or manifestations - NOT distinct 'persons' who are coequal, coeternal, and co-substantial. 'Lord God' is the Father, his Spirit in the Holy Ghost, and 'me' is the Son in prophecy in Isaiah 48:16. The New Testament reveals the 'name above every name' of God. Hebrew 1:4 states that the Son inherited His name. From Whom did He inherit it? The Father of course. Jesus means 'Yahweh saves.'

"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one” (I John 5:7)."

This study will not address the fact that many Bible versions with the exception of the King James Version do not include this verse, but bring out a few points that contradict the trinitarian understanding of it. Trinitarians revel in the fact that the number three is attached to Father, Word, and Holy Ghost seeming to lend credence to their doctrine of the trinity.

But there is a fly in the ointment so to speak when one fully understands ‘Word’ and its biblical relationship to the Son. A few trinitarian scholars see ‘Word’ as being synonymous with ‘the Son’. (I might add that trinitarian scholars believe that ‘God the Son’ is a distinct ‘person’ along with the Father and ‘God the Holy Spirit’.

I would like to emphasize for the reader that ‘God the Son’ and ‘God the Holy Spirit’ are invented terms not found anywhere in scripture). In reality, the Word is NOT the Son! The Word pre-existed the Son for all eternity (John 1:1-2). There was no Son in existence UNTIL “…the Word was made flesh…” as recorded in John 1:14. And why is it that trinitarian scholars assume that Father, Word, and Holy Spirit are distinct ‘persons’? Couldn't they just as well be three manifestations or relationships or offices of ONE God?

As point of fact, Father, Word, and Holy Ghost are not distinct ‘persons’ with three distinct centers of consciousnesses. John 1:1 says plainly that “the Word was God”. Just as your mind is you without any distinction in persons, so it is with God and Word.

God the Father is the source or origin of creation and His only begotten Son, the Word is the means by which the Father created everything (John 1:1-3; Psalms 33:6), and the Holy Spirit is God’s ministry or Comforter (also known as the Spirit of Truth in John 14:16-17).

Through the ministry or office of Holy Spirit, God brings all things Jesus taught to a believer’s remembrance (John 14:26), reproves the world of sin, righteousness, and judgment (John 16:8), and guides believer’s into all truth (John 16:13). Father, Word, and Holy Spirit are three revelations of one God whose name is Jesus.

The doctrine of the trinity declares that there is one God who exists in three ‘persons’, God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost. These three ‘persons’ are distinct from each other, co-equal, co-eternal, and share the same essence (hupostasis). There are many problems with this statement. First of all, ‘God the Son’ and ‘God the Holy Ghost’ are unbiblical terms. Secondly, nowhere does the Bible state three ‘persons’ existing in one Being (3 in 1). Thirdly, the Bible makes a distinction between God and God the Father. The phrase 'God the Father' occurs 11 times in the Bible, all in the New Testament.

When the title ‘Father’ is used of God, it is always in relationship to creation (including humanity) and the Son. Malachi 2:10 says, “Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?” Paul wrote the following in Romans 1:7. “To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ”. Galatians 1:3 reads, “Grace be to you and peace from God the Father, and from our Lord Jesus Christ”. ‘Father’ is a title which is used to indicate the One who sired or begot the Son, and in the sense of the Creator or Originator of everything that exists. ‘Father’ or ‘God the Father’ is not a proper name (such as Jehovah or Jesus).

Both senses of Father are used in time, not eternity. When John was given the revelation of God and the Word in eternity, the text explicitly says God rather than God the Father (John 1:1). In the creation account, Moses wrote, “In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth” (Genesis 1:1). God has always existed because He is eternal. However, God did not take on the relationship of Father until He spoke creation into existence (time, space, and the heavens and earth). He became Father of the Son of God when His Spirit overshadowed Mary and she conceived.

The trinity doctrine is fatally flawed in that it teaches that God the Father eternally existed along with God the Son and God the Holy Ghost. But as we have seen, the Bible does not teach this. Oneness aligns itself with Scripture because it teaches God manifests Himself as the Father, in the Son, and as the Holy Ghost. God eternally existed as God. (Again note that Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1 says ‘God’ rather than ‘God the Father’). He alone existed in eternity past. As the prophet Isaiah declares many times, God created all things alone or by Himself. Let’s look at a natural example to better understand ‘father’. My father was born in 1898. However he did not become a father until 1951 when I was born. But he as an individual preexisted the title ‘father’.

The doctrine of the trinity rests squarely on the foundation that God is one Being who exists in three co-equal and co-eternal ‘persons’ – Father, Son, and Holy. But is this true? Does the Bible which is the Christian’s only source of spiritual truth justify classifying God a person? Let us first explore the origin of the English word ‘person’. Upon examining a good dictionary, we find that the word ‘person’ comes to us from the Latin word ‘persona’. ‘Persona’ was a face mask worn by ancient actors to portray different characters in a play. Gradually this word came to signify the entire individual. The early Christian theologian Tertullian who first coined the word ‘trinity’ borrowed the word ‘persona’ to describe Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. Based on its origins, and what it came to mean when it was adopted into the English language, ‘person’ cannot be used as a reference to God.

That being said, can we find anywhere in Scripture where Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are designated ‘persons’? John 4:24 says that God is a Spirit. Luke recorded Jesus saying the following in Luke 24:39, “Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see, for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have”. If a spirit lacks flesh and bones, it cannot be a person. By definition, the Holy Ghost (or Spirit) is a Spirit. Now let’s take a look at the Son. II Corinthians 2:10 states the following, “To whom ye forgive any thing, I forgive also: for if I forgave any thing, to whom I forgave it, for your sakes forgave I it in the person of Christ”. ‘Person’ is translated from the Greek word ‘prosopon’. This word is translated ‘person’ seven times and ‘face’ 55 times in the King James Version of the Bible. The Bible does teach that the Son is a person. When the one true God manifested Himself in the flesh (II Timothy 3:16), He was known as the Son of God. The Bible does not call God the Father or Holy Ghost ‘prosopon’. Thus, according to the Bible, these are not persons but rather manifestations. I Corinthians 12:7 talks about the manifestation of the Spirit.

One trinitarian website maintains that God is a person because He has a personality. But this is backwards logic. ‘Personality’ proceeds from a person. In other words, you’d have to be a person first before you could be said to have a personality. I reject the notion that the word ‘person’ can be redefined to include God which is what trinitarian theologians have done. And, as we have seen, the Bible itself doesn’t call God a person.

Trinitarians presuppose verse 6 teaches that the second 'person' of the trinity, the so-called God the Son, pre-existed the incarnation as a distinct being along with God the Father. But does this understanding align itself with Scripture? I contend that it doesn't. Let us examine the phrase 'being in the form of God' in verse 6. Does this signify a distinct 'person' called God the Son? There is a passage in the Bible which declares God in eternity past. John 1:1 reads, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God". Note carefully who the Bible declares to be eternally with God - the Word, NOT 'God the Son' or some 'second person'. 'Word' is NOT synonymous with 'person' as trinitarians assume. A person is a human being. The Word was made flesh (human being) in the course of time as stated in John 1:14.

How was Christ Jesus (the antecedent of 'Who' in Philippians 2:6) in the form of God? John 1:1 answers that question by telling us it was as the Word. Christ Jesus thought it not robbery to be equal with God when He existed AS THE Word. (Again, read John 1:1 with care and you will see plainly that it doesn't say 'the second person of the trinity' or 'God the Son' or 'eternal Son'). Philippians 2:7 says that Christ Jesus (antecedent of 'himself') made himself of no reputation by taking 'the form of a servant' and 'made in the likeness of men'. Christ Jesus did this AS the Word. This happened during the incarnation when God manifest Himself in the flesh (I Timothy 3:16a). Read I Timothy 3:16 very carefully. It states that God was manifest in the flesh, NOT God the Father.

Philippians 2:6 doesn't refer to a non-existent 'second person of a trinity'. Trinitarians would have you believe that this is the only understanding. But a careful examination of the text itself without adding any non-biblical terminology refutes that explanation.

John 17:5 is embodied in what theologians categorize as Jesus' high priestly prayer. Verse 5 records Him requesting that the Father return the glory He had with Him prior to the creation of the heavens and the earth. Trinitarians see this passage as justifying their belief in an eternal Son (second 'person' of a trinity). However, nowhere does the Bible state that Jesus is the second Person in a so-called 'trinity'. In order to rightly divide this passage, we must search the Scriptures to see what it says about the preincarnation of God with respect to creation.

John 1:1 says, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God". This text declares that the Word eternally existed with God, and is God. We know that the Word is Jesus because verse 14 declares that the Word was made flesh. Verse 18 says that the only begotten Son is in the bosom of the Father. How was the Son in the bosom of the Father? Was it as the Son? It couldn't have been because John 1:1 states plainly that it was the Word which eternally existed with God, not the Son. Trinitarians impose their biased understanding of the Godhead on passages such as this because they start with a trinitarian foundation.

The glory that Jesus had with the Father before the world was brought into being was as the Word. This is what Scripture tells us allowing it to speak for itself and without imposing a finite human understanding on it.

"Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God" (I John 4:2).

The Bible teaches plainly that the name of Father, Son, and Holy Ghost is Jesus (from the Hebrew 'Jehoshua' which means 'Jehovah Savior'). One God (Deuteronomy 6:4) has revealed Himself in three manifestations for the purpose of the redemption of mankind. 'Christ' is not a proper name but rather a title. The Hebrew equivalent is 'Messiah'. It means 'the anointed One'. This title refers to the Son of God (God manifest in the flesh). 'Christ' is never applied to God apart from His humanity (the Bible never refers to God the Father as Christ). The same is true of the phrases 'Son of God' and 'Son of man'.

How are we then to understand I John 4:2 where we are explicitly told that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh? Note the Scripture specifically states 'Jesus Christ' and not 'Christ'. This passage was written from the perspective of God. It is equivalent to saying that 'every spirit that confesseth that God is come in the flesh'. Note the following complementary Scriptures: II Corinthians 5:19 (God was IN Christ), I Timothy 3:16 (God was manifest IN the flesh), Colossians 2:9 (for IN Him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead), John 14:10 (Father that dwelleth IN me).

I emphasized the pronoun 'in' with uppercase letters in the above passages to underscore that each declares that deity dwells in the man Christ Jesus. 'In' signifies that God Himself was enclosed or surrounded by humanity (total manhood - spirit, soul, and body).

"And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all" (I Corinthians 15:28)

This passage is looking into our future when the unrighteous shall have been judged and placed into the lake of fire, and the believers will no longer have need for a mediator because they will have been sealed in righteousness in their glorified bodies. Adam's sin which was inherited by all mankind necessitated God coming to earth in the likeness of sinful flesh for the purpose of redemption (Read Genesis 22:8; Acts 20:28). It was also necessary for believers to have a human mediator to make intercession to God on their behalf (I Timothy 2:5).

When this is accomplished, the Sonship will come to an end. Understand that God will forever dwell in that body of flesh which He took to the cross and resurrected after three days and three nights. But He will no longer be known as the Son of God. All the power and authority of God will have been invested into His human glorified body. This is how Stephen saw Jesus while he was being stoned to death. And this is how all believers will see Him in heaven sitting on His throne. The Sonship had a beginning and it will end making God in the flesh all in all.

Although God sitting on the throne in the person of Christ Jesus will be seen by all, He will yet be everywhere present by His Spirit. The throne is for a physical Lord and King and Jesus' kingdom shall not only be everlasting, but encompass all redeemed creation.

Two doctrinal issues divide Christianity – the Godhead and water baptism. But if truth be told, the formula of water baptism stems from the understanding of the Godhead a person holds. The majority of Christianity (Methodist, Baptist, Episcopalian, etc.) believe the doctrine of the trinity. Roman Catholicism holds this same belief. These Protestants and Catholics practice water baptism in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost as given in Matthew 28:19. Not as dominant are the Jesus name apostolics. They belief in the oneness of God and baptize and pray in Jesus name. Trinitarians believe that the phrase ‘in Jesus name’ means in the authority and power of that name, and is not meant to be used as a formula. They vehemently fight the oneness understanding of vocalizing the name of Jesus in water baptism and prayer.

Does ‘in the name of Jesus’ actually mean saying or vocalizing Jesus name, or does it only signify by the authority of Jesus in which case the name isn’t to be stated? Trinitarians use the example given in Acts 4:7 as a foundation for their understanding of ‘in Jesus name’. “And when they had set them in the midst, they asked, By what power, or by what name, have ye done this?” I agree that these religious rulers wanted to know in or by whose authority Peter and John had healed the lame man (Acts 3:1-8). Peter answered by saying, “Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth…” (Acts 4:10a). Trinity proponents would have us believe that Peter and John didn’t verbally call out Jesus name.

Let us take a look at Acts 3:6. “Then Peter said, Silver and gold have I none, but such as I have give I thee. In the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth rise up and walk”. Oneness believers do not argue against ‘in the name of Jesus’ signifying by His authority, but only against the teaching that Jesus name is not to be verbally spoken. Despite trinitarian arguments to the contrary, Peter actually spoke the name Jesus over the lame man. An incident recorded in Acts 19:11-16 may help to clarify this issue. Certain vagabond Jews apparently witnessed Paul healing the sick and exorcising the demon possessed (vss.11-12). Note verse 13. “Then certain of the vagabond Jews, exorcists, took upon them to call over them which had evil spirits the name of the Lord Jesus, saying, We adjure you by Jesus whom Paul preacheth”.

Note that this text specifically states that the vagabond Jews ‘called’ the name Jesus over the demon possessed. What precisely did they say? “…We adjure you by Jesus…” Oneness believers are accused by trinitarians of teaching that a formula is to be used in prayer, healing, and water baptism. Invoking Jesus name in everything that we do (Colossians 3:17) is not resorting to a formula, but declaring the actual name of the God we serve and by whose authority and power the miracle is being performed. How did the seven sons of Sceva know what to say over the demon possessed? They repeated word for word what they heard Paul say. They didn’t hear him utter something like ‘by the authority of Jesus’ or ‘in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost’ because they would have quoted those words precisely. They heard Paul vocalize Jesus name in all the miracles he performed. Notice how the demon responded as recorded in verse 15. “…Jesus I know, and Paul I know, but who are ye?” The demon parroted back to the seven sons the names he heard them say – Jesus and Paul.

When Paul was converted, he was baptized in Jesus name. Acts 22:16 says, “And now why tarriest thou? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord”. ‘Calling on the name’ states clearly that a name was verbally spoken. And what is the name of the Lord? Acts 2:36 says that God has made Jesus both Lord and Christ. Contrary to the teachings of the trinitarian majority, the name Jesus is to be verbally invoked in water baptism and everything else we do spiritually. The only time the authority of Jesus is invoked is when His name is spoken (called out). Appealing to secular illustrations such as ‘stop in the name of the law’ or an ambassador acting in the authority of the president of the United States cannot be used to give credence for quoting Matthew 28:19 or not saying anything at all. The spiritual forces of darkness recognize and fear the name Jesus. Quoting titles or improper names, i.e., Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, lack both power and authority.

"Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones. or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: and he is before all things, and by him all things consist" (Colossians 1:15-17).

The antecedent of the pronoun 'who' in Colossians 1:15 is 'Son' in verse 13. Thus the Son is given credit for all creation as elaborated upon in verse 15. But this doesn't justify the trinitarian doctrine of an 'eternal Son' or 'God the Son'. The Bible never declares an 'eternal Son' or 'God the Son'. It does however declare the Son of God. And according to Luke 1:35, the Son of God was born (this passage in and of itself should lay to rest an 'eternal Son' or 'God the Son'). The question we should be asking ourselves is 'how can we rightly divide the Son as having created all that exists?'

John 1:3 states that all things were made by the Word (the antecedent of the pronoun 'him' in verse 3 is 'Word' in verse 1). All creation has its origin in the Word. John 1:14a says "And the Word was made flesh..." 'Son' in Colossians 1:13 is the Word made flesh. Therefore the Son created all things not as the Son, but as the Word.

Jehovah's Witnesses mishandle the Word of God by teaching that the word 'firstborn' in Colossians 1:15 signifies that Jesus was created. This is false for two reasons. First, although the word 'firstborn' is translated from the Greek 'prototokos' which can mean 'firstborn' as the first child born in a family (as used in Luke 2:7), it can also mean 'preeminence'. This is its meaning in this passage of Scripture. 'Creature' can be understood to mean 'creation'. Colossians 1:15 teaches that Jesus has the preeminence over all creation. Secondly, Colossians 1:17 throws light on verse 15 by saying that Jesus is before all things (has the preeminence), and by Him everything consists (holds together). Colossians 1:15-17 is an unveiled declaration of deity. The Son is unmistakably God manifest in the flesh (I Timothy 3:16).

"And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth” (Genesis 1:26).

I know what I am about to propose flies in the face of the teaching of every Sunday school teacher, every pastor, and every seminary and Bible college globally. But, be that as it may, I am convinced of its validity and scriptural foundation. I first heard it from my father, the late Elder Joseph Elias Barrett (1898 – 1987). Elder Barrett was an anointed apostolic Bible preacher and teacher who was referred to as the ‘walking Bible’. He told me that Genesis 1:26 doesn’t refer to Adam, but to Jesus. In other words, God had the Son (God manifest in flesh) in mind, not Adam. This was decades ago and I have never forgotten it. It wasn’t until rather recently that I finally understood what he said, and became firmly convinced that my father was right.

It has been taught throughout the years that Genesis 1:26 refers to Adam and his progeny. Image and likeness refers, we have been told, to man being created in the mental (intellectual), moral (God-consciousness), and social image of God. But this is a very superficial understanding. I believe the truth goes far deeper. Consider that God is Spirit (John 4:24) and is infinite in knowledge (omniscient), presence (omnipresent), power (omnipotent), and eternal (Isaiah 57:15). The weight of Scripture points to Jesus perfectly fulfilling Genesis 1:26. With this understanding, we can see God patterning Adam’s physical body after the design He created for Himself before the foundation of the world to be the sacrificial Lamb. Man referred to in Genesis 1:26 points directly to the man Christ Jesus who is the express image of God (Hebrews 1:3). Contrary to what has been taught throughout the centuries, ‘image’ and ‘likeness’ as used in Genesis 1:26 expresses the exact likeness of God in all of His perfections and glory. Adam and his progeny were morally deficient in respect to the fact that they could willingly choose to disobey God. They had free will in which they could freely choose to go their own way (sin). Jesus however could not have disobeyed (sinned). John records Jesus saying the following, “And he that sent me is with me: the Father hath not left me alone; for I do always those things that please him” (John 8:29). Adam could never have made that statement.

Theologians have failed to address the physical design of man. Prior to God forming man from the dust of the earth (Genesis 2:7), man didn’t exist in actuality. He did however in the mind of God. God had determined in eternity to make man; this man was Jesus Christ who was to be flesh and blood. With His predetermined physical design for this man in mind, God formed Adam from the dust of the earth based on Christ Jesus as the prototype (first man based on whom Adam was formed). Therefore Adam was made in the image and likeness of God manifest in the flesh – Jesus, the Son of God. No ordinary physical being could have possibly been made in the image and likeness of the infinite Spirit of God. As far as his body was concerned, Adam was designed according to the plan God devised for His redemption body (Genesis 22:8; John 1:29, 36).

The Scriptures pointing to Jesus alone being the very image of God are many and incontrovertible. Hebrews 1:3a says, “Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person (essence, Being)…” Colossians 1:15 declares Jesus as being the image of the invisible God. All of God is expressed and seen in Christ Jesus. As Adam was made in the physical image and likeness of the Son of God, the sons of God (all born-again believers) are made in the spiritual likeness of the Son. “For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren” (Romans 8:29). I John 3:2 says, “Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is”.

Let me summarize this Bible lesson. Contrary to Adam in Genesis 1:26 being made in the image and likeness of God, he was made in the image and likeness of God manifest in the flesh (the Son of God). No created being whether man or angel can be made in the image and likeness of God. But God could and did fashion man after the image and likeness of Jesus, the Son of God.

"And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are" (John 17:11).

Although the original Greek manuscripts of the New Testament have long since vanished, there does remain thousands of copies. These remaining (extant) copies fall into two categories. A small number of them originate from Egypt. The most famous of these manuscripts are the Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus. However, the overwhelming majority of extant manuscripts come from all over the ancient world. They are later than the Egyptian manuscripts. Not surprisingly, these later manuscripts are known as the Majority Text.

John 17:11 according to the Majority Text contains a small phrase which the Textus Receptus and Egyptian manuscripts do not. The King James Version is based on the Textus Receptus and thus does not contain this phrase either. Here is how John 17:11 reads in the Majority Text: "And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name (which you have given me), that they may be one, as we are". I have enclosed the phrase in parentheses. The absence of this phrase in our English Bibles does not impact any doctrinal truth. But its presence does underscore who the Son of God received His name from. This can be used along with Hebrews 1:4 where we learn that Jesus inherited His name. Look again at the following phrase from the Majority Text: "...keep through thine own name which you have given me..." Jesus is praying that the Father keep His disciples through the name which the Father has given Him (the Son). The Son's name is Jesus which means that the name Jesus is the Father's name. The name Jesus given the Son was originally the Father's name. This is the reason Hebrews 1:4 states that the Son of God inherited His name. The evidence of Scripture is overwhelming. Contrary to the teachings of trinitarians, the name of the Father IS JESUS!

I discovered this accidentally while reading my Greek New testament Bible. Needless to say I was overjoyed over this important discovery. Does this mean that there is a problem with the King James Version of the Bible? Not at all. The missing phrase contains only three Greek words and we do have Hebrews 1:4. The Majority Text version of John 17:11 is significant in that the majority of the extant (surviving) Greek manuscripts contain it. It therefore should not be overlooked. Here is the website: John 17:11 from the Majority Text

"He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water. (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified)" (John 7:38-39).

The Bible teaches that our one God Jesus revealed Himself in three manifestations, titles, offices, or relationships for the purpose of the redemption of the human race. These manifestations are Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. Jesus is the Father of creation and of the begotten Son, the Son in redemption, and the Holy Ghost operating in the lives of all born again believers (sons of God). John 7:39 discloses that no believer would receive the Holy Ghost until Jesus was glorified. While Jesus was in the body, He was the disciples’ Spirit of truth or Holy Ghost (John 14:17). And at a future time He would indwell them by His Spirit (John 14:18). This happened on the day of Pentecost which occurred after He was crucified, resurrected, and glorified. (Comforter, Holy Ghost/Spirit, Spirit of truth, Spirit, Spirit of Jesus, Spirit of the Son, Spirit of God, and Spirit of Christ are all synonymous and interchangeable terms. Read John 7:39, 14:16-18, 15:26, 16:7, 13; Romans 8:9; Galatians 4:6). John 7:39 and John 14:16-18 teach plainly that the manifestation or ministry of the Holy Ghost did not always exist. But God nevertheless was always holy and always a Spirit (John 4:24). The manifestation of the Holy Ghost should not be confused with God’s nature of holiness and His essence as Spirit. The former came about in time while the latter eternally existed.

God’s holiness is an intrinsic attribute which cannot be separated from His Being. Psalms 99:5 says, “Exalt ye the LORD our God, and worship at his footstool; for he is holy”. Peter writes: “Because it is written, Be ye holy; for I am holy” (I Peter 1:16). Because God is Spirit, He cannot be seen or detected by any of man’s five senses or any device made by him. Not only is God Spirit, but unlike angels and demons, He is an uncreated and everywhere present Spirit.

The manifestation of the Holy Ghost, like that of the Father and Son, did not always exist. But God was always holy and always Spirit. The redemptive manifestations of Father, Son, and Holy Ghost were fulfilled in time but Jesus (the eternal Spirit) always existed. The purpose of the manifestation of the Holy Ghost is plainly given in scripture. The indwelling Holy Ghost will testify of the Son (John 15:26), reprove (convict) the world of sin, righteousness, and sin (John 16:8), and guide believers into all truth (John 16:13).

"Do ye thus requite the LORD, O foolish people and unwise? Is not he thy father that hath brought thee? hath he not made thee, and established thee?” (Deuteronomy 32:6).

Deuteronomy 32:6 is a portion of a song of Moses which He spoke in the presence of the children of Israel. Here he calls Yahweh father to the Israelites. A careful study of the Old Testament shows that when the name (title) ‘father’ is used of God, it is in relationship to Yahweh as creator, or caregiver and sustainer to mankind (II Samuel 7:14). Yahweh says that He will be a father to King David’s successor to the throne, Solomon, in II Samuel 7:14. Note how the term is used in David’s song recorded in Psalm 68:5. “A father of the fatherless, and a judge of the widows, is God in his holy habitation”. Malachi 2:10 relates that Yahweh is father to Israel in terms of creation. “Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? Why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?” (Malachi 2:10). The fatherhood of Yahweh is relational. It is always used to depict God in relationship to man as regards creation or as sustainer. Luke 3:38 declares that Adam is the son of God. He is called a son because Adam was a direct creation of God (Genesis 2:7). God as father takes on even greater significance as revealed in the New Testament when He manifests Himself in flesh, and when a person becomes born again. When the Word was made flesh as recorded in John 1:14, God becomes father of His only begotten Son. This selfsame event was recorded in I Timothy 3:16a as “…God was manifest in the flesh…” This one God completely indwelt the Son (Colossians 2:9), and gave Him His very own name (Hebrews 1:4). The Father’s name given the Son of God is Jesus. All born again believers are called sons of God. This makes God our father in terms of the new birth (I John 3:1-2) and not merely in terms of creation.

Prior to the conception of the Son of God and the creation of man and the heavens and earth, there was no relationship whatsoever in terms of fatherhood. Yahweh was not father of anything because there was nothing in existence but Himself. God as father did not exist for all eternity as the doctrine of the trinity teaches. Put another way, God eternally existed, but not as Father. He entered into a father relationship first in terms of creation (heaven and earth and mankind). God next became Father of the begotten Son, and subsequently became father to all born again believers.

Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the scepter of thy kingdom is a right scepter” (Psalm 45:6)

Psalm 45:6 is quoted in Hebrews 1:8. “But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of thy kingdom. Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows” (Hebrews 1:8-9). There are predominantly two differing understandings of Hebrews 1:8 depending on whether one is oneness or trinitarian. Oneness believers see this passage as prophetic while trinitarians believe that it portrays God the Father speaking to ‘God the Son’. Obviously both understandings cannot be right because oneness adherents do not believe that the Bible teaches God the Son (or eternal Son). It is obvious that Psalm 45:6 refers to the Son as God because we are told that in Hebrews 1:8. On that point trinitarian and oneness believers agree. But the Bible does not justify an eternal Son belief. The Son was conceived in time about two thousand years ago. Luke tells us, “And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God” (1:35). The Son was born and therefore could not possibly have eternally existed.

Why then did Psalm 45:6 begin by stating “Thy throne, O God…”? Paul answers that question in his first epistle to Timothy. “And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh…” (I Timothy 3:16a). The doctrine of the trinity teaches that the second person of the Godhead was manifest in the flesh. The biblical definition of Son is “God manifest in the flesh”, not the second person of a triune God. The Son of God was completely indwelt by God (II Corinthians 5:19; Colossians 2:9). The Word of God must be rightly divided and cannot be made subordinate to private interpretations (II Peter 2:20). Psalm 45:6 is prophetic in that God using King David as His writer was proclaiming a future event. This prophecy is phrased as though the Son was in existence during the lifetime of King David. But the Bible frequently uses this literary device.

Then the Lord rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the Lord out of heaven;" (Genesis 19:24)

This narrative actually begins in Genesis 18. Genesis 18:1-2 says, "And the LORD appeared unto him in the plains of Mamre: and he sat in the tent door in the heat of the day; And he lift up his eyes and looked, and, lo, three men stood by him: and when he saw them, he ran to meet them from the tent door, and bowed himself toward the ground." God and two men appeared to Abraham at his tent. Verse two tells us that three men appeared to Abraham. God, along with two angels, manifested themselves in male human forms for this visit. (This historical event provides further proof for the sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 as being angels in human form.) These men were given the hospitality of all guests according to Middle Eastern culture. Their feet were washed and food provided. We then read in verse 22: "And the men turned their faces from thence, and went toward Sodom: but Abraham stood yet before the LORD." The angels continued on their journey towards Sodom while Yahweh remained with Abraham. After Abraham unsuccessfully attempted to spare the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah, we read in verse 33: "And the Lord went his way, as soon as he had left communing with Abraham: and Abraham returned unto his place."

With this contextual background, we can better understand Genesis 19:24. Yahweh yet remained on earth after conversing with Abraham. But does this passage speak of two separate Yahwehs as some Trinitarians believe? (Some Trinitarian theologians believe that the Yahweh on earth was 'God the Son' and the Yahweh in heaven was God the Father. However, 'God the Son' is something conjured up in the mind of men because the Bible doesn't mention or teach such. I read in one of Jimmy Swaggart's publications past publications that Genesis 19:24 declares two Yahwehs. All such beliefs are based on the presupposition that God is triune. Both violate Deuteronomy 6:4 and numerous other Old and New Testament passages.)

Let us come to an understanding of Genesis 19:24 based on the presupposition that God is one (numeric) indivisible Spirit. The Spirit of God is everywhere present (1 Kings 8:27; Psalm 139:7-10; John 3:13.) Simply because Yahweh is in heaven while simultaneously on earth doesn't void His omnipresence or somehow cause Him to become two distinct Yahwehs. The infinite presence of God was manifest by an appearance on earth and in heaven at the same time. This is what is meant by infinite presence or omnipresence. It is impossible for God to become disassociated from Himself as to form distinct presences. The very idea is the height of lunacy. As a matter of fact, I always tell my Oneness students God can, if He wishes, manifest Himself in hundreds of physical forms and yet remain ONE indivisible, nondistinct God.

In the year that king Uzziah died I saw also the LORD sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up, and his train filled the temple" (Isaiah 6:1.)

When God created the heaven and earth as stated in Genesis 1:1, the third heaven was also included along with the holy of holies (or most holy place,) and throne. These are not figures of speech or metaphors, but physical objects. The prophet Isaiah saw Yahweh (Jehovah, LORD) on the throne. The apostle John saw this very same throne and a Being sitting on it (Revelation 4:2.) John 12:41 applies Isaiah 6:1 to Jesus. Jesus and Yahweh is one and the same. Trinitarians and Oneness believers both agree on this point. We differ on the following. Isaiah lived and died hundreds of years before God was manifest in the flesh (Son of God.) The Being on the throne is in a physical body. Trinitarians teach that it was 'God the Son' or the second 'person' of the Trinity. The Bible, however, does not teach a 'God the Son' or a triune God.

Because Jesus is Yahweh manifest in the flesh, He is everywhere present by His deity. Acts 9:1-5 presents the conversion of Paul (formerly Saul.) While traveling to Damascus, he was suddenly enveloped by a light from heaven. He then heard a voice which said, "...Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me?" (verse 4.) This voice identified Himself as Jesus (verse 5.) Jesus was in heaven because He ascended there forty days after His resurrection. Jesus was also on earth at this time as the Holy Ghost in the body of believers. The third chapter of John records Jesus conversing with Nicodemus. Verse 13 quotes Jesus saying: "And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven." Jesus was in heaven while simultaneously on earth as the Son of God.

Isaiah saw Yahweh manifest in a physical body on the throne in heaven. This is the one indivisible God of Deuteronomy 6:4, not an imaginary second 'person' of a Trinity ('God the Son' or 'eternal' Son.) But as we have shown above, God cannot be confined to a physical manifestation. While in His prophetic ministry on earth, Jesus was yet in heaven. And while in His priestly (mediator, intercessor) ministry in heaven, Jesus is yet dwelling inside billions of born-again believers on earth.

That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me" (John 17:21.)

Jesus stated at least three times that He is in the Father and the Father in Him (Read also John 10:38, 14:10.) Several passages state clearly that God (the Father) lives or dwells inside the man Christ Jesus. 2 Corinthians 5:19a says "...God was IN Christ..." Colossians 2:9 declares that ALL the fulness of the Godhead lives bodily in the Son. Jesus Himself said that the Father that dwelleth IN Him does the works (John 14:10.) All these passages declare that the Spirit of God lives in Jesus Christ. But how at the same time can the Son dwell in the Father?

The Oneness understanding of these passages is quite simple. It doesn't need a Trinitarian explanation of multiple 'persons' living within each other. John 4:24 says that God is a Spirit. This Spirit is all encompassing and boundless (Read 1 Kings 8:27; Jeremiah 23:24; Psalms 139:7-10.) On this basis, It is easily seen that Jesus Christ dwells IN God the Father Who is everywhere present. Jesus in the Father and the Father in Jesus can further be understood to declare the oneness of mind and unity of purpose between the human will and mind of the Son and the will and mind of God the Father. While in the Garden of Gethsemane on the Mount of Olives, Jesus prayed "...nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done" (Luke 22:42b.)

How can the phrase "...that they also may be one in us..." in John 17:21 be explained from a Oneness perspective? (Certainly this must be a validation of the triune God concept of three distinct 'persons.') Jesus knows intimately the nature of His relationship with the Father. This relationship excludes the Son and Father existing as distinct 'persons.' This language can be readily understood if the truth that Jesus is ALL man and ALL God is kept in mind. The plural pronoun 'us' spoken by Jesus points back to the man Christ Jesus and the Father as manifestations, NOT 'persons,' of the ONE indivisible God. Believers are to be one in mind and will with the Son and with the Father.

"God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth" (John 4:24.)

I will attack and demolish the Trinity doctrine of three distinct 'persons' dwelling within God (Godhead) from a perspective which will probably be new to Trinitarian believers. No Christian disputes the truth that God is a Spirit (John 4:24.) Jesus said the following concerning a spirit: "Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have" (Luke 24:39.) The Spirit of God is immaterial or noncorporeal. This Spirit is also invisible (Colossians 1:15; 1 Timothy 1:17.) The Spirit of God is everywhere present (omnipresent.) 1 Kings 8:27 reads: "But will God indeed dwell on the earth? behold, the heaven and heaven of heavens cannot contain thee; how much less this house that I have builded?" Jeremiah 23:24 reads: "Can any hide himself in secret places that I shall not see him? saith the Lord.Do not I fill heaven and earth? saith the Lord." The truth that is borne by 1 Kings 8:27 and Jeremiah 23:24 is God cannot be contained within anything He did and ever could create. Everything that exists including the third heaven is finite and has spatial limitations. The Spirit of God extends beyond the heavens into nothingness (absence of creation.) What I am attempting to convey is the truth that anything outside of space (which itself is a created entity) is the Spirit of God.

How many Spirits are there? Only one according to Ephesians 4:4. The Bible uses many synonymous terms for the Spirit of God including Holy Ghost, Spirit of Truth, Spirit of the Son, and Spirit of Jesus Christ. From what the Bible states categorically, we can form the following corollary. The Spirit of God is indivisible. There is no Scripture nor is it ever inferred that the Spirit of God embodies distinct 'persons' each of whom is God. Such a conclusion is not only dishonoring to God, it is blatantly ludicrous. The Spirit of God is continuous (the very essence of being omnipresent) without any 'person' of God subsisting within.

"Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost" (Matthew 28:19)

Trinitarian believers overwhelmingly use Matthew 28:19 as a baptismal formula. However, the Bible teaches that water baptism is an identification into the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ. Colossians 2:12 says, "buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead." Romans 6:3-4 reads, "Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death? Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life." How could Matthew 28:19 be the correct baptismal formula when the Father and Holy Ghost did not die, were not buried, and did not rise from the dead? Trinitarians would all readily agree that the Father and Holy Ghost did not die.

Since Jesus plainly states in Matthew 28:19 that believers should be baptized IN THE NAME of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost, the standard Trinitarian explanation of this passage cannot be correct. Believers are clearly to be baptized in the name of the one who actually died, was buried, and who rose from the dead. Obviously, this applies to the Son only. What is the significance of this? The Oneness understanding of Matthew 28:19 is right. Oneness teaches that Matthew 28:19 obeyed is as Peter preached on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:38.) The name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost is Jesus. It is obvious that although the name of the Father and Holy Ghost is Jesus too, it was only God manifest in the flesh, the Son, Who actually died, was buried, and rose on the third day. Believers who are baptized according to Acts 2:38 (which is Matthew 28:19 obeyed,) are being identified into the death, burial, and resurrection of the Son of God.

"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD" (Deuteronomy 6:4)

The doctrine of the Trinity is held by the majority of Protestant denominations including Lutheran, Baptist, Methodist, Episcopalian, Pentecostal, etc., as well as the Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox churches. This doctrine teaches that one God exists in three distinct "persons" each of whom is God, i.e., God the Father, "God the Son," and "God the Holy Ghost (Spirit.)" (I placed God the Son and God the Holy Ghost within double quotes, i.e., ["] to indicate they are not found in Scripture.)

But what most Trinitarian theologians and scholars fail to realize is that they, to use an idiomatic expression, "shoot themselves in the foot" with three major arguments used to support the Trinity. The first flaw is that they assert that the Hebrew word "echad" translated "one" in Deuteronomy 6:4 unequivocally signifies "[compound] unity" or "united." The Christian Apologetics Research Ministry in their website article entitled "Does Deuteronomy 6:4, the Shema, Disprove the Trinity?" states "...the word for "one" in Deut. 6:4 is "echad," which [is] often used for describing a composite unity such as one cluster of grapes..." The "got questions" website article entitled "How Can Jesus Be God If Deuteronomy 6:4 Says That God Is One?" states "...The Hebrew word translated “one” in Deuteronomy 6:4 is "echad." It means “unity,” not “singularity” ..." The second fallacy or flaw which is related to the first is that Trinitarian theologians imply that if singularity or a numeric one is meant by Deuteronomy 6:4, the Hebrew word "yachid" would have been used. "...There is a Hebrew word that means “absolute singularity,” yachid, but it is never used in the Hebrew Scriptures in reference to God" (got questions website.) The third fatal flaw is that the Trinitarian understanding of "one" in Deuteronomy 6:4 does not live up to the definition of the Trinity.

Let us examine the first fallacy. The majority of Trinitarians make the assertion that in the majority of instances, "echad" translated "one" in Deuteronomy 6:4 means "compound unity." But even a "die-hard" Trinitarian scholar against whom I wrote a Oneness book (In Defense of Oneness, 1994) in answer to his book "Oneness Pentecostals And The Trinity" honestly admitted "...Even weaker is the argument that the Hebrew word for one (Echad) used in the Schema (“Hear O Israel, the LORD our God is one LORD”) refers to a unified one, not an absolute one … An examination of Old Testament usage reveals that the word echad is as capable of various meanings as is our English word one. The context must determine whether a numerical or unified singularity is intended..." (Gregory Boyd, "Oneness Pentecostals And The Trinity", pages 47 and 48.)

Trinitarians frequently compare the use of "echad" in Deuteronomy 6:4 to its use in Numbers 13:23. "And they came unto the brook of Eshcol, and cut down from thence a branch with one cluster of grapes, and they bare it between two upon a staff; and they brought of the pomegranates, and of the figs" (Numbers 13:23.) "Echad" (one) modifies the word "cluster." A cluster of grapes is composed of many individual grapes. Here "one" indicates "many or compound grapes in one cluster." However, the problem with many Trinitarians arises in that they impose a meaning on Deuteronomy 6:4 based solely on the use of "one" in Numbers 13:23 and a handful of other verses such as Genesis 2:24. "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." The "one flesh" of the husband and wife means they are one in unity rather than one physical body. The context of "Echad" in Numbers 13:23 and Genesis 2:24 demands an understanding of "one of many (compound unity.)" Hence, only the context can determine whether "one" signifies "unity" or a "numeric one" whenever it is encountered in Scripture.

Years ago I personally surveyed the use of "echad" in the Old Testament to discover how many times it indicated a "compound unity" compared to a numeric one. It meant a numeric one in the majority of verses examined. This demolishes the untested belief held by Trinitarians that "yachid" would have been used to indicate a numeric or absolute one. Joshua chapter 12 lists the kings conquered by Joshua in the land of Canaan (verses 9-24.) The context of these verses shows indisputably that "one" (echad) means a numeric one. "The king of Jericho, one; the king of Ai, which is beside Bethel, one" (verse 9.) Verse 24 tallies the number of kings who were conquered. "The king of Tirzah, one: all the kings thirty and one." Look at Numbers 1:44. "These are those that were numbered, which Moses and Aaron numbered, and the princes of Israel, being twelve men: each one was for the house of his fathers." Does "one" mean a "compound one" or "one of a group" or does it mean a single individual? The total number of the princes of Israel was twelve; "each one" designates a single man (one) within the group. I could go on and on and the overwhelming majority of Scriptural uses would be a numeric one. I challenge every Trinitarian who believes that "echad" is used of a compound unity exclusively, or even the majority of times, to examine the use of "one" (echad) in the Old Testament. This can be done by using Strong's or Young's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible. The Holy Ghost uses "Echad" in the books of Genesis through Deuteronomy 387 times and 359 times it indicates a numeric one! Of the 970 times "echad" appears in the Old Testament, the context imposes a meaning of numeric or solitary one over 600 times! The fact that "echad" is used the great majority of times to mean a numeric one relegates flaw number two - the Hebrew word "yachid" would have been used if singularity or a numeric one is meant by Deuteronomy 6:4, - defenseless.

You would think that a theological resource like Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible gives all possible meanings for "echad." It doesn't! Here is the definition for "echad" (Strong's Old Testament reference 259): "a numeral from 258 (perhaps a primitive root; to unify...) properly united, i.e. one; or (as an ordinal) first..." This definition is in error through omission. We have shown conclusively that "echad" signifies a numeric one the overwhelming majority of times yet this meaning was omitted from Strong's definition. This shows an openly Trinitarian bias.

The third and final fatal flaw is that the Trinitarian understanding of "one" in Deuteronomy 6:4 does not mesh with the definition of the Trinity. Trinitarian theologians believe that "one" LORD or God exists in three "persons" who are equally God singularly. But when "one" signifies a compound unity in Scripture, it never means the whole. An example of the meaning of compound unity is that an individual grape forms a part of the cluster in Numbers 13:23 but it is NOT the entire cluster. Or the man of Genesis 2:24 does not form the "one flesh." It is only with the wife he forms one flesh. But, Trinitarians stress that each member of the Godhead is equally God and NOT that they are God in combination. That's like saying an individual grape in the cluster is the cluster or the man is one flesh singularly or the wife is one flesh by herself. Trinitarians cannot have their cake and eat it too. If "one" means compound unity, then each member of the Trinity can not be God in His entirety. To have this be true would be to make Deuteronomy 6:4 the ONLY exception when "one" means a compound unity in the Bible.

This study has "removed the covers" from perhaps the greatest theological fraud in Christianity - Trinitarianism. By carefully reading and then painstakingly and carefully examining the incontrovertible evidence will reveal the deception of the Triune God doctrine. I implore those who are convinced of the truthfulness of the Trinity to consider the evidence presented. Admittedly this is not an easy read or study. It will take time to comprehend and prove. But all truth-seekers will with the assistance of the Holy Ghost have their eyes opened.

There is one God and God is one. The declaration that "there is one God" and "God is one" may on the surface seem to make an identical claim, but in reality, it doesn't. There is a subtle difference. "One God" declares there exists one absolute and numerically single God in contradistinction to the pantheon (multiple gods) the ancient civilizations of Egypt, Rome, Babylon, and Greece worshiped, or the millions of gods worshiped by the followers of Hinduism. Even the devils (demons) know there is one God. "Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble" (James 2:19.) 1 Corinthians 8:4 expresses this truth too. "As concerning therefore the eating of those things that are offered in sacrifice unto idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is none other God but one." The existence of one God is revealed in the fundamental Scripture given to the children of Israel prior to their entering into and taking possession of the land of Canaan. "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD" (Deuteronomy 6:4.) Verse 4 begins the most sacred belief in all of Judaism - the Shema (hear.) Jesus repeated this fundamental truth as recorded by Mark. "And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The LORD our God is one LORD" (Mark 12:29.)

"God is one" communicates this one God does NOT exist in multiple persons or beings such as what the false doctrine of the Trinity affirms. In point of truth, there is no historical precedent for any deity subsisting in multiple gods, beings, or personalities. Research the gods of the ancient Egyptians, Babylonians, Romans, Greeks, etc. and you will discover that gods such as Dagon the fish-god of the Philistines or Diana goddess of the Greeks or the sun God Ra of the Egyptians or even Jupiter the supreme god of the Romans are all numerically singular deities, i.e. they do not subsist in multiple beings. In all the approximately 6,000 years of human history, the only time you will find a god who is both singular AND alleged to subsist in multiple "persons" is the Christian God revealed in the New Testament. And let me be absolutely clear. This understanding does not come from the Word of God but was imposed by so-called Christians who WERE NOT led by the Holy Ghost.

The "Triune God" understanding of "God is one" is a Scriptural and historical anomaly. A careful study of ancient world history will reveal that every or almost every civilization believed in an afterlife. The Native Americans believed that at death a person would transition to the "happy hunting ground." Ancient Egyptian royalty prepared deceased kings and the royal family for the afterlife. Did you know that almost every civilization has a flood legend? They do. These legends tell of a great flood in which the earth was inundated with water with only one family surviving. Many ancient civilizations also have legends of their gods mating with women producing demi-gods. Most famous among these is the Greek myth of Hercules. What is the common denominator among these legends of the afterlife, a global flood, and gods mating with women? They all have a verifiable historical basis and although embellished, they all have a basis in the Scriptural truth of an afterlife, Noah's flood, and the sons of God having sexual relations with earth women. In other words, they are all based on what actually occurred as related in the Bible. But try as you may, you will find NO historical narrative of any god existing in multiple beings! This truth should set off a silent alarm in your heart and mind. Why are there no ancient legends of pagan gods who are numerically one and simultaneously exist in two or more "persons" or beings?

The reason why the Trinitarian explanation for "God is one" is absent from every ancient civilization is that it NEVER existed as a legend or a myth in these cultures. It entered human consciousness shortly AFTER the Christian faith was born. Theologians shortly after the death of the apostles, I believe, whether knowingly or unknowingly, mixed the Greek concepts expressed by men like Origen and philosophers such as Socrates and Plato with the Scriptures - specifically the New Testament. They subsequently exported this flawed understanding into the Old Testament imposing it on Scriptures such as Genesis 1:1 (Elohim) and Genesis 1:26. Every teaching and explanation which supports a Triune God is based on a false foundation supported since the mid to late second century CE (common era) by the Roman Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, and Protestant churches, pastor-to-congregation teachings (tradition,) and hymns which present a Trinity, i.e. "Holy, Holy, Holy, Lord God Almighty, God in three persons, blessed Trinity."

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